[geoschmo]

Originally posted by teal:
You say that Rex's statement meant that *only* the top 1% of wage earner's benefited from the tax cut. By no stretch of the imagination could Rex have meant that literaly. Thus you are picking on him for saying something which is technically not true, but fail to really address the gist of his meaning (that the top 1% benefit *disproportianetly* (sp?) more than other tax payers).

I disagree totally that Rex could not be reasonably thought to have meant that. Even now after rereading it I still believe that is exactly what he meant. But I may be wrong and said as much in my post.

If I am incorrect and he meant that the top 1% benefit *disproportionally* as you suggest, then he is still wrong. Because the top 1% do not benefit from the tax cuts disproportionally.