Questions

[Kobal2]

Originally Posted by thejeff

So your level 3 mage could cast level 4 spell that cost 2 gems. He would use 3 gems to do it. 2 for the spell and 1 to boost him to 4th level. If it cost 3 gems, he couldn't do it because he can only use 3 gems and has none left to boost his level.

I'm about 95% certain of this. I swear I've seen exceptions mostly involving blood mages using up slaves faster than they should, but I haven't been able to replicate it.

Confirmed the hard way in a recent game of mine. And no, the gem used to temporarily raise a mage's path does not let him crack one more gem, either.

A D3 Fomorian king with a Staff (4D total) and 5 gems in his pockets refused to cast Dance of the Morrigans (D5, 4 gems) and went with Undead Horde instead. The exact same King with a Skull Helmet on top cast DotM just fine.

I got confused, then figured that D4 = can snort the 4 gems the spell requires anyway, but can't use the fifth one to raise his effective level to cast it in the first place.

[Dimaz]

Redeyes, I'm sorry that my answer confused you, however it was exactly what was said after me. By "spell cost in gems +1 is less than or equal to mage level in that path" I meant original level without added gem, of course.