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Old February 4th, 2005, 08:55 PM

alexti alexti is offline
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Default Re: Random Magic Paths - is it truly random?

Quote:
alexti said:
If we pick the range [x1,x2] that covers 99% of possible outcomes, then we could show that lim (x1, N-> inf) = lim (x2, N-> inf) = 3/8 (well, I think we can show)
Or maybe we can not... I feel really rusty. Does anybody know how to prove (or disprove) that lim (x2, N-> inf) = 3/8? I did few attempts, and didn't manage it
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